abhisheksubeesh abhisheksubeesh
  • 22-02-2018
  • Mathematics
contestada

Can one angle of a parallelogram be equal to 40° and another one 50°? Justify your reasoning.

Respuesta :

jcherry99
jcherry99 jcherry99
  • 22-02-2018
Short answer: No! <<=====
If the two are one after another, then they are not supplementary, which a parallelogram requires.

If they are in opposite corners, they must be equal. That's another property of parallelograms.
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

Three students earned $48.76 at a bake sale. the students split the earnings evenly, how much did each student receive? *Answer ASAP* Thanks for your help in ad
Can you explain why in detail please?
Particle 1 of charge q1 �� ��5.00q and particle 2 of charge q2 �� ��2.00q are fixed to an x axis. (a) as a multiple of distance l, at what coordi- nate on the a
How are goods and services disbuted in a free market sustem
What did romans build in conquered areas to help stabilize their rule and increase communication?
Alfarsi industries uses the net present value method to make investment decisions and requires a 15% annual return on all investments. the company is considerin
V=1/3πh^2 (3r-h) solve for r
What is the differnce between union and intersection in math
what is the sum of 10 and a number y is equal to 18
What was the tool puritans used to teach their children? in addition to the alphabet, what else was taught using this tool?